Tag Archives: Tovia Singer

Isn’t A Law Still A Law When It Ceases To Be A Law?

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The manslayer laws are extremely useful in demonstrating the principles upon which the finite Torah argument is based. In order for the manslayer laws to be functionally valid, the context in which they exist must allow for two types of death:

  1. Accidental death of one man caused by another
  2. Natural death of the high priest.

In other words, the validity of the manslayer laws is directly related to death being a logical possibility.

We have already discussed that when the Messianic Age is completely established, death will be abolished. The abolition of death means the abolition of accidental homicide as well as the abolition of a naturally caused death of the high priest. Therefore, the abolition of death means the abolition of the manslayer laws, because in the absence of death they are functionally invalid and serve no purpose.

It is at this point, where those who want to support an eternal Torah against all odds, will make this declaration:

A law is a law even when it ceases to be a law.

Once someone who believes in an eternal Torah has been presented with clear and unambiguous data demonstrating the Torah of Moses to be finite, and they refuse to accept what Tanakh says, the only remaining recourse is for them to declare that irrelevant laws are still laws. By classifying irrelevant laws as laws, they are able to keep the Torah eternal.

But we know that to keep the Torah eternal in this way is an act of obfuscation. Since the Torah of Moses was given as a body of law to be followed by the people of Israel in a specific context, a context where each and every law had relevance and application, to impose that same body of law on a different age with a different context defies logic and is not supported by Tanakh.

The choices seem clear. If you believe in context, you will believe in a finite Law of Moses. If you disregard context, you will believe the Law of Moses is eternal. Which choice, do you think, is consistent with Tanakh and honors the G-d who gave Moses the Law?

Torah Equivocation and Abraham

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What is the Torah?

The answer depends on the context.

Torah can simply mean instruction. Or it can refer to the five books of Moses. Or it can refer to the 613 commandments derived from the five books of Moses.

When asked if Abraham followed the Torah, Rabbi Tovia Singer in the video below answered “Yes”, citing Genesis 26:5.

…Abraham obeyed me and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes and my laws.

Rabbi Singer did not distinguish the Torah Abraham followed from the Torah of Moses, but instead conflated them, to make it appear that Abraham was aware of the Torah revealed to Moses on Sinai. This is troubling, in light of the following:

  • Abraham did not tithe to the Levites, as required by Moses
  • Abraham did not observe the Passover, as required by Moses.
  • Abraham did not observe Yom Kippur, as required by Moses.

Since Abraham predated Levi and Moses and the exodus from Egypt, he could not follow commands related to Levi or Moses or the exodus. Therefore, we can confidently conclude that Abraham and the patriarchs were not obligated to follow the same set of commands as Moses. That is why Joseph could marry an Egyptian woman and Jacob could marry sisters – the commands from Moses outlawing such practices did not exist in their day, because their Torah was different from the Torah of Moses.

Listen to the Rabbi and then study Torah. Does Torah teach that Abraham followed the Law of Moses, as the Rabbi claims, or that Abraham followed a different Torah consisting of laws relevant to his time?